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1995 Chemistry

1. Foul smelling carbylamine test is given by:
(1) Aldehydes
(2) Alcohols
(3) Carboxylic acids
(4) Primary amines.
2. Proteins give purple colour when tested with:
(1) Biuret
(2) Benedict's reagent
(3) Iodine solution
(4) Ninhydrin reagent
3. Heat of formula DHf0 of an explosive compound like NCl3 is:
(1) Positive or negative
(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) Zero
4. The organic compound used as antiknock agent in petroleum is:
  (1) TNT
(2) (C2H5)2Hg
(3) (C2H5)4Pb
(4) CH3MgBr
5. Bordeaux used as fungicide in agriculture is a mixture of:
  (1) CaO-CuO
(2) CuSO4 + Ca(OH)2
(3) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
(4) CaSO4+Cu(OH)2
6. Which of the following is not crystalline solid?
(1) Rhombic S
(2) KCI
(3) CsCI
(4) Glass
7. Solid iodine is:
(1) Metallic crystal
(2) Ionic crystal
(3) Covalent crystal
(4) Molecular crystal.
8. The rate of chemical reaction is doubled for every 100C rise in temperature because of:
(1) Increase in the number of activated molecules
(2) Increase in the activation energy
(3) Decrease in the activation energy
(4) Increase in the number of molecular collisions.
9. Aspirin is obtained by the reaction of salicylic acid with :
(1) Methanol
(2) Acetic anhydride
(3) Acetadehyde
(4) Acetyl chloride
10. Nitration of toluence using fuming sulphuric and nitric acids gives:
(1) Trinitro toluene (TNT)
(2) o-nitro toluene
(3) m-nitro toluene
(4) p- nitro toluene
11. Epsom salt is:
(1) Sodium bicarbonate
(2) Hydrated calcium sulphate
(3) Hydrated magnesium sulphate
(4) Zinc sulphate
12. Which of the following solutes will produce temporary hardness in water?
  (1) NaHCO3
(2) MgCI2
(3) Mg(HCO3)2
(4) NaCI.
13. Which form of carbon is good conductor?
(1) Amorphous
(2) Diamond
(3) Graphite
(4) Coal.
14. Nitrogen is obtained by  the thermal decomposition of:
  (1) AgNO3
(2) NH4NO3
(3) NH4NO2
(4) Pb(NO3)2
15. Which of the hydrohalic acid is inexpensive, strong and stable against oxidation?
(1) HI
(2) HF
(3) HCI
(4) HBr
16. The heat of neutralization is highest in the reaction between:
  (1) NaOH-CH3COOH
(2) HNO3NH4OH
(3) HCI-NaOH
(4) NH4OH-CH2COOH
 
17. When k2Cr2O7 crystals are heated with concentrated HCI the gas evolved is:
  (1) HCI
(2) O2
(3) CI2
(4) CrO2CI2
18. The indicator used in the titration of Iodine against sodium thiosulphate is:
  (1) Strach
(2) KI
(3) K2CrO4
(4) K3Fe(CN)6
19. Liquid petroleum Gas (LPG) mostly contains:
(1) propene
(2) Methane
(3) Ethane
(4) Butane
20. Coal is a mixture of:
  (1) CH4 and CO
(2) H2and CO
(3) H2CO and CH4
(4) H2O and CO
21. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is possible?
         n    l   m1     m4
(1)    1   0   1      1/2
(2)    3   2   1         0
(3)    3   0   0     -1/2
(4)    1   2   2       1/2
22. Equivalent weight of KMnO4 is:
(1) One-sixth the molecular weight
(2) Its molecular weight
(3) One-fifth the molecular weight
(4) Half the molecular weight
23. Corrosion of iron can be prevented by coating the surface by:
(1) Any of the below
(2) Zinc
(3) Tin
(4) Nickel
24. Presence of halogens in organic compounds is detected by:
(1) Beilstein's test
(2) Iodoform test
(3) Silver nitrate test
(4) Millon's test
25. IUPAC name for anisole is:
(1) Methoxyethane
(2) Methoxybenzene
(3) Ethoxybenzene
(4) Methoxymethane
26. The gas evolved when Pb(NO3)2 is heated
  (1) N2O5
(2) N2O
(3) NO
(4) NO2
27 Which of the following compounds is efflorescent ?
(1) NaHCO3
(2) Na2CO3
(3) Na2CO3.H2O
(4) Na2CO310H2O
28. The electronic configuration of Fe3+ ion is(at no. of Fe =26):
(1) [Ar]3d8
(2) Is22s22p63s2p63d5
(3)  [Ar]3d64s2
(4)  [Ar]3d64s1
29. The radioactive decay of an element is......... reaction
(1) Third order
(2) Zero order
(3) First order
(4) second order
30. Which of the following molecules is not linear?
(1) N2O
(2) CO2
(3) C2H2
(4) NO2
31. 40 mg. of pure sodium hydroxide is dissolved in dissolved in 10 litres of distilled water. The pH of the solution is:
(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11
32. The pH of the solution produced when an aqueous solution of pH 5 is mixed with an equal volume of an aqueous solution of pH 3 is:
(1) 3.3
(2) 3.5
(3) 4.0
(4) 4.5
33. Pieric acid is:
(1) 1,3,4 trinitro phenol
(2) Trinitro because
(3) Trinitro toluene
(4)  2,4,6 trinitro phenol
34. The standard enthalpy change of the decomposition of N2O4 to NO2 is 58.04 kJ and the standard entropy of this reaction is 176.7 J/K. Therefore the standard free energy change for this reaction at 250C is:
(1) -539 kJ
(2) -5.39 kj
(3) 5.39 kJ
(4) 539 kJ
35. Which of the following is a closed system?
(1) Rocket engine during propulsion
(2) Jet engine
(3) Piece of rusting iron
(4) Pressure cooker.
36 Bell metal used to make big bells is an alloy of:
(1) Cu-Ni
(2) Cu-A1
(3) Cu-Sn
(4) Cu-Zn.
37. Since the ionisation potential of the alkali metals is low, they are identified by flame test. The flame colour imparted by sodium is:
(1) Yellow
(2) Red
(3) Violet
(4) Orange
38. The metal ion present in insulin is:
(1) Zn2+
(2) Fe2+
(3) Fe3+
(4) Mg2+
39. Which of the following biomolecules contain a non-transition metal ion?
(1) Vitamin B12
(2) Haemoglobin
(3) Chlorophyll
(4) Insulin
40. The functional group present in aldehydes is:
(1) -OH
(2) C=O
(3) -CHO
(4) -COOH
41. Volume of 0.6 M NaOH required to neutralize 30 cm3, of 0.4 M HCI is:
(1) 45 cm3
(2) 30 cm3
(3) 20 cm3
(4) 50 cm3
42. Hybridization of carbon is benzene molecule is:
(1) s2p
(2) sp
(3) sp2
(4) sp3
43. Which of the following organic compounds is aromatic?
(1) Benzene
(2) Alkanes
(3) Alkenes
(4) Alkynes
44. Among the halogens as you go from F to I, the electron affinity:
(1) Fluctuates
(2) Increases
(3) Decreases
(4) Remains same
45. Oxidation is removal of electrons. Therefore the strongest oxidiser by
(1) Iodine
(2) Oxygen
(3) Chlorine
(4) Fluorine
46. Enzymes are class of substances belonging to:
(1) Lipids
(2) Monosaccharides
(3) Nuclei acids
(4) Proteins
47. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) Hydrogen bonds are the only force stabilizing the native structures of proteins
(2) The alpha helix is a common feature of the primary structures of many proteins
(3) Hydrogen bonds stabilize the alpha helix.
(4) Hydrogen bonds stabilize the beta helix
48. The vitamins present oils and fats are:
(1) B and C
(2) A and B
(3) A and C
(4) A and D.
49. The enzyme used in the conversion of glucose and fracture to ethyl alcohol is:
(1) Diatase
(2) Zymase
(3) maltase
(4) Invertase.
50. Grignard reagents are formed by the reaction of alkyl halides with:
(1) Warm MgCO3
(2) Mg ribbon in alcoholic solution
(3) Warm MgCI2
(4) Warm Mg in the presence of dry ether
51. The half-life period of a first order reaction is:
(1) Directly proportional to the rate constant
(2) Independent of the initial concentration
(3) Dependent on the initial concentration
(4) Dependent of the rate constant.
52. Which of the following compounds undergoes Cannizzaro's reaction?
(1) Benzyl alcohol
(2) Acetone
(3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Formaldehyde
53. The catalytic hydrogenation of benzene yields:
(1) Benzoic acid
(2) Xylene
(3) Cyclohexane
(4) Toluene
54. The base present in DNA but found in RNA is:
(1) Guanine
(2) Thymine
(3) Uracil
(4) Adenine
55. Copper pyrite, the chief ore of copper, is:
(1) Cu2O
(2) Cu2S
(3) CuCO3Cu(OH)2
(4) CuFeS2
56. Which of the following is not a co-ordination compound?
(1) Potassium ferricyanide
(2) Potash alum
(3) Potassium ferrocyanide
(4) Cuprammonium sulphate
57. The number of ions in tetra-amine copper (II) hydroxide is:
(1) Seven
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
58. Copper metal crystallizes with a face centered cubic (FCC) lattice. It has a co-ordination number of:
(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 12
(4) 6
59. Nitrogen can have oxidation numbers -3 to + 5, Identify the compound have nitrogen in +1 state:
(1) N2O5
(2) N2
(3) NO
(4) N2O
60. The nitrogen fertilizer having the lowest nitrogen percentage is:
(1) Urea
(2) Ammonium nitrate
(3) Ammonium sulphate
(4) Calcium ammonium nitrate
61. Alkynes are represented by the general formula:
(1) CnH2n-2
(2) CnH2n
(3) CnH2n+2
(4) CnH2n+4
62. Identify the reaction which is not affected by increase in pressure:
(1) 2SO2 + O2 « 2SO3
(2) PCI3 + CI2 « PCI5
(3) N2 + 3H2 « 2NH3
(4) N2 + O2 « 2NO
63. For an exothermic reaction:
(1) DE is negative
(2) DH is positive
(3) DH is negative
(4) DH is equal to zero.
64. In the manufacture of ammonia by Haber's process N2 + 3H2 «  2NH3,DH =-92.3kJ which of the following conditions is unfavourable ?
(1) Removing ammonia as it is formed
(2) Increasing temperature
(3) Increasing pressure
(4) Reducing temperature
65. The catalyst used is the manufacture of nitric acid by Ostwald's process is:
(1) Fe
(2) Rh
(3) Pt-RH
(4) Pd.
66. In the process of nitration the electrophile formed is:
(1) NO+
(2) NO+2
(3) NO-2
(4) NO-3
67. Maleic and fumaric acids are:
(1) Chain isomers
(2) Optical isomers
(3) Geometric isomers
(4) Functional isomers
68. Prussian blue is:
(1) Fe4[Fe11(CN)6]3
(2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) CU2[Fe(CN)6]
(4) Fe3[Fe111(CN)6]2
69. In the reaction C2H2(g)+5/202(g)®2 CO2(g)+H2O(l) the heat evolved 1300.00 kJ mol-1, DH0fCO2(g)=-393.7 kJ mol-1DH0fHO2(g)=-285.85 kJ mol-1 therefore the heat of formation of acetylene is:
(1) + 1,802 kJ mol-1
(2) + 226.8 kJ mol-1
(3) - 226.8 kJ mol-1
(4) - 1,802 kJ mol-1
70. Which of the following statements about the catalysts is not true?
(1) Catalytic property of heterogeneous catalyst depends on the surface area of the catalyst
(2) A catalyst cannot alter a reaction mechanism
(3) A catalyst lowers the free energy of activation
(4) A catalyst altered in one step is restored in subsequent steps.
71. The relative strengths of hydrophalic acids are in the order:
(1) HCI > HBr > HI
(2) HI > HBr > HCI
(3) HBr > HCI > HI
(4) HI > HCI > HBr
72. An aqueous solution of Al(NO3)3 gives a white gelatinous precipitate with the addition of small amount of NaOH which dissolves with excess NaOH solution. The complex formed is:
(1) Al(OH)3
(2) NaAl(OH3)4
(3) NaAlO2
(4) NaAl(OH)4
73. The cell used for the electrolysis of fused NaCI is:
(1) Castner cell
(2) Solvay cell
(3) Nelson cell
(4) Down's cell
74. Sodium is preserved under:
(1) Water
(2) Kerosene
(3) Methanol
(4) Ether
75. Molten sodium used in nuclear reactors:
(1) Absorbs fission products.
(2) Acts as moderator by slowing down the fast neutrons,
(3) Absorbs neutrons to control the chain reaction.
(4) Acts as a coolant.



 

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